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Reflections on God, his Verb and on Jesus Christ

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  • Reflections on God, his Verb and on Jesus Christ


    By Rony Guadalajara

    Hi all.

    Without the intention of being pedantic and with the sole purpose of being able to express better what I think, I have taken the liberty of interviewing myself. I would like, if someone does not agree with the interpretation I make of certain verses of the Bible, expose it. I believe that all opinions are important to keep growing in the knowledge of God and his Word.

    Question: Mr. Guadalajara, are you an Adventist?

    Answer: Yes, for almost twenty years, although I prefer to identify myself as a Christian, without more.

    Q: Mr. Guadalajara. Is there only one God?

    A: Yes. We read it in Deuteronomy 6:4 and also in Mark 12:29, where Jesus says that the first and greatest commandment is: "Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one."

    Q: And who is that God for you, Mr. Guadalajara?

    A: It is the Lord Almighty God, the Alpha and the Omega, the one who lives for ever and ever, who is the beginning and the end, the only Sovereign King of kings and Lord of lords, the only one who has immortality, who lives in unapproachable light, whom none of the men has seen or can see, who is and who was and who is to come, the Creator, the Father, our Lord, our Savior.

    Q: But a God in three people, is not it?

    A: No. That concept is alien to the Word of God. It is an idea that emerged in the fourth century, which later became dogma supported by a supposed infallibility and that unfortunately our church ended up adopting. Both in the Old and in the New Testament we are revealed a unique and only God, not a unit composed of three "persons".

    Q: But then, what you are saying is against our doctrine, do not you think?

    A: Adventists have been recovering truths like the Sanctuary, the non-immortality of the soul, the state of the dead, the Sabbath ..., but in some issues we have to go back to the sources, to rebuild walls. One of them is concerning the deity. As Mrs. White says in the book The Other Power, "no matter how long we have held certain doctrines, it does not mean that they are infallible. Only God is infallible".

    In fact, starting from a mistaken Arrian position like that held by our pioneers, we have evolved towards a concept of deity so distorted that the vast majority of the brothers, although they accept it, do not understand it, and those who disagree do not say it or do not they dare to expose it publicly. Mrs. White also said that Adventists should always be open to a new light based on a better understanding and interpretation of the texts of the Bible.

    In this sense, I get the impression that within our church is beginning to emerge a reform movement that presents as an alternative a concept of deity strongly supported in the Bible.

    Q: Does this mean that you and other brothers are going to leave the church?

    A: No, it is not necessary to leave the church, but to reform certain doctrines with the help of God.

    Q: So, Mr. Guadalajara, if the only God is the Father, who is Jesus Christ for you?.

    A: Jesus Christ is a man, a human being in whom all the fullness of the Godhead dwells. (Colossians 1:19, Colossians 2: 9). It is the stone rejected by men but chosen and precious for God (1 Peter 2: 4).

    In his prescience, God, the Father, sees the Creation, the Rebellion, the Fall and the Salvation. It is in that same prescience that God sees the future man Jesus Christ as the only one capable of carrying out his plan of salvation and the only one who fulfills the model required by him to carry it out. (Ephesians 1: 1-3, 5-8, 3:11, 2 Timothy 1: 8-11, 2 Corinthians 5: 18,19, 1 Peter 1:19, 20).

    Q: And why does God choose a man as our Savior?

    A: Because the chosen one did not have to succor the angels, but he had to succor the descendants of Abraham, to humanity, for that reason he had to be similar to his brothers in everything (Hebrews 2: 14-17).

    It is in Jesus Christ where all things were created, those of the heavens and those of the earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones, domains, principalities, powers, everything was created thinking about him and for him. (Colossians 1:16)

    The translation "through him," that is, "through Jesus Christ," is not correct. As I mentioned in a previous article, when referring to creation, the Greek preposition "δι"(di)+genitive, is never translated "through", but "by", which means, " taking into account ". That is to say, all that the Father has created has been in Jesus Christ, taking into account Jesus Christ, thinking about Jesus Christ and for Jesus Christ, but not through Jesus Christ.

    Since before Creation, although Jesus Christ does not exist because he has not yet been born of Mary, for God, however, he is before all things (John 8:58), wanting him to have the preeminence in everything and that all things subsist in him (Colossians 1: 17-18).

    Q: Are you saying that Jesus Christ did not exist before his birth?

    A: Yes. Before being born of Mary by the power of God in the Holy Spirit, Jesus Christ did not exist; it only existed in the eternal mind of the Father. That is, it is not that there was a hypothetical God Son who is born, but that the holy being that is born, God declares his son, which is a very different thing. The Son of God, the Son of Man, the Only Begotten, the One, everything refers to man, to the human being Jesus Christ.

    Q: But if Jesus Christ, or the Son of God, did not exist before being born of Mary, how does he explain then that in the beginning the Word existed with God?

    A: You, in your question, are affirming that the Word has personality or is a person.

    Q: And is not it?

    A: No. The Word is not a person nor has personality, is the Word of God. The Word is not God, the Word is God's, as is his divine presence, his face, his spirit, his glory, his hands, his breath, his shekinah, his power. It could be said that all these terms are "morfes", "aspects" of God, but not God. The Word is eternal because God is eternal. The Word is a quality, a particularity, a singularity, a nature, a brand, an attribute of God. In the Old Testament, in Hebrew, it is the dabar of God, and in the New Testament, in Greek, it is translated as the rhema or the logos of God. In no case, to this dabar, rhema or logos, the texts give it a personality character.

    Paul, in Hebrews 4:12, tells us that the Logos, that is, the Word of God, is alive and effective, and sharper than any two-edged sword; and penetrates to split the soul and the spirit, the joints and the marrow, and discerns the thoughts and intentions of the heart. And in Isaiah 55:11, we read that the dabar, that is, the Word that comes from the mouth of God, will not return to him empty, but will do whatever he wants.

    Q: That is, for you, the Word is not the Son of God.

    A: The Word is not the Son of God. As I have said before, the Word is neither a person nor has personality. The Word is an attribute of God. There is no text in the Bible that says that the Word is Jesus Christ or the Son of God. That the Word is the Son of God is a wrong conclusion to which we have come influenced by that idea emerged in the fourth century. Also, do you think that everything we have read about Paul and Isaiah regarding the dabar, the rhema or the logos of God can be applied to Jesus Christ? I do not think so.

    Q: So Mr. Guadalajara, how do you interpret John 1:1?

    A: John 1: 1 tells us that in the beginning it was God and his Word, and that this Word was divinity. This verse is translated in this way because the first God who appears carries article, the Word was with "the God" and the second God who appears does not carry article, "and God was the Word", therefore, in Greek , is translated as a quality of the Word, that is, that the Word was divinity. It should be clear that this verse refers only and exclusively to God and his Word, that is, to a "person", and not to two people.
    Example: You and your word are not two people, but only one. Do you understand?

    Q: I think I understand you. And what about the Word became flesh, how do you interpret it?

    A: Once John has spoken to us about the Word in verse 1, this Word is not mentioned again until verse 14, "And that Word ...". In the original of this verse in Greek, appears on the one hand the word "egeneto", which has many meanings, and on the other hand, the word "sarx", which means flesh. According to scholars, this verse 14 is one of the most difficult to interpret in the entire Bible. The question is: What did John mean in this verse? I have already said that the word "egeneto" has many meanings, so taking into account the context in which this word appears, united in parallel with other verses of the New Testament, it will help us to choose the best translation.

    Traditionally, this verse 14 is translated as "the Word became flesh"; but if it is translated in this way, the following problems arise:


    If the Word becomes flesh, we leave God without his Word, since it has become flesh.

    This can not be because God keeps his Word.


    How is it possible that something like the Word, which is not a person or has personality, can become flesh?
    This is also absurd.

    However, if we translate that "the Word was lodged in the flesh", or that "the Word dwelt in the flesh", since the word "egeneto" also allows it, it would be the correct translation, or at least the one that would most approached what John wanted to say.

    Q: That is to say, that Word, which is not a person nor has personality, does not become flesh, but is lodged in the flesh. True?

    A: Yes. That would be another way of understanding the verse. The concept I want to convey is that, from eternity, God, in his eternal mind, associates his Word with the future man Jesus Christ, who will be born of the Virgin Mary. God, the Father, without detaching himself from his Word, and in a way that we can not understand, incorporates him into Jesus at the moment of his birth, pointing him (John 6:26). This would be consistent with passages like Colossians 1:19, where we read "for it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell", that is, his Word. It is for this reason that to say that Jesus Christ has a divine nature is correct, although that fullness does not interfere in anything in his humanity.

    This translation would also agree with Philippians 2: 6, where we read that Jesus Christ, who exists in union with God's "morphe", did not want to be equal to God. In this passage from Paul, "morfe" or "form" replaces "verb."

    I take this opportunity to explain this verse of Philippians, since many brothers present it to prove, erroneously, that Jesus Christ is God. The verse does not say that Jesus Christ, being God or equal to God, did not want to remain in the condition of God. That does not say the text. What the text tells us is that Jesus Christ, being only a man, did not want to be equal to God, as happened with Adam. The humiliation did not consist in lowering from God to man, but from man to slave.

    Q: But Jesus Christ is the Lord, is not it?

    A: Jesus Christ is the Lord because God, who is the Sovereign Lord, has made him Lord and Christ (Acts 2:36), Jesus Christ is the light because God, who is light (1 John 1:5), has placed him by light of the nations (Isaiah 42:6), Jesus Christ forgave the sins because God gave him all authority (Matthew 28:18) and Jesus Christ has life in himself because as God, our Father, has life in himself, he has also given to his Son, life in himself (John 5:26).

    Jesus Christ is the Messiah, is the Savior promised by God. Revelation 7:10 tells us that both are our Saviors. One, God, is the originator of the plan of salvation, the one who takes the initiative, the other, the man Jesus Christ is the one who accepts it and carries it out. Therefore, once Jesus Christ suffered and died for our sins, God, the Father, the only God, crowns him with glory and honor, exalting him above all, including the angels, and making every knee be doubled before him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, them shall the Son also himself be subjet unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all (1 Corinthians 15:28).

    Q: Very good, Mr. Guadalajara. To finish, I would like to ask you one last question: If you affirm that the only God is the Father and that Jesus Christ is the man whom God has chosen for our salvation, who is the Holy Spirit?

    A: I would not know how to define it. There are things that the Word of God does not reveal to us clearly, or simply does not reveal them. One of them is who the Holy Spirit is. What we do know about him is that he has personality and that he has the spirit and power of God. He is the one who convinces the world of sin, justice and judgment (John 16: 8) and the one who will guide us to the whole truth (John 16:13). The Holy Spirit is also known as the seven lamps of fire, or the seven spirits of God. In Revelation 5: 6 we read that the Lamb had seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven spirits of God sent throughout the earth.

    Notice that it says "sent." It could be angels or perhaps an angel to whom God gives his Spirit and his Power and sends him throughout the earth. But I repeat, I would not know how to define it.

    Notice also that the Holy Spirit no longer appears in chapter 21 or 22 of Revelation. Is it because in the New Earth there will be no need to convince anyone of sin because it will no longer exist and then that Spirit will return to the Father?

    It is an opinion.

    Interesting reflection.

    Let's read the Bible and discover our loving, unique and great God, the Father, made known and revealed through our Lord Jesus Christ.

  • #2
    In relation to the interpretation I have made of John 1: 1, I would like to explain it a little better. The mere fact that the second God of the verse goes without an article does not mean that it has to be translated as the Word was divinity. It must also be fulfilled that the nominal predicate precedes the verbal form, and in this case it is fulfilled: "and God was the Word". Thus, the verse in question meets both requirements and most grammarians agree that in Greek this verse can not be translated either by "the Word was God" or as the Jehovah's Witnesses say, "the Word was a God ", but by" the Word was divinity "